Tuesday, 13 May 2014

Is it acceptable, or even legal for the government to "change terms" once a process is already in play? For instance, let's say I was charge...

Question

Is it acceptable, or even legal for the government to "change terms" once a process is already in play? For instance, let's say I was charged $30 for "service of process", and then later get a bill for $10 from the court because the process server managed to later re-negotiated a higher fee for themselves?

note: not the real situation, but illustrates the issue fairly satifactorily



Answer

If you have a contract with someone and you pay what was agreed upon then they cannot unilaterally charge more later one.



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